13 Sep 100 SSC GD Constable MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with Answers

Posted at 09:11h in mcq by

 

Section 1: General Knowledge & General Awareness (Q1–Q25)

1) Which fundamental right cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency?
  1. Right to Freedom of Speech
  2. Right to Protection in respect of conviction for offenses (Article 20 and 21)
  3. Right to Equality
  4. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Articles 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences) and 21 (protection of life and personal liberty) can never be suspended, even during a National Emergency. This protection was made explicit by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.

2) Where is the headquarter of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) located?

  1. New Delhi
  2. Kolkata
  3. Mumbai
  4. Chennai
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
The RBI was established on 1 April 1935 with its headquarters initially in Kolkata, but it was shifted permanently to Mumbai in 1937. Mumbai remains the central office today.

3) Who among the following founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828?

  1. Swami Dayananda Saraswati
  2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  3. Swami Vivekananda
  4. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 in Calcutta. It was a reformist movement that opposed idolatry, caste rigidity and sati, and promoted monotheism and rational thinking.

4) Which planet in our solar system is known as the ‘Red Planet’?

  1. Venus
  2. Jupiter
  3. Mars
  4. Saturn
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Mars appears reddish because its surface is rich in iron oxide (rust). Hence it is called the Red Planet. It is the fourth planet from the Sun.

5) What is the national sport of India?

  1. Cricket
  2. Field Hockey (De facto / Official recognition context)
  3. Kabaddi
  4. Football
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
India has not officially declared any national sport. However, field hockey is widely regarded as the de facto national sport because of its historical achievements, including eight Olympic gold medals.

6) Kaziranga National Park, famous for the one-horned rhinoceros, is located in which state?

  1. Assam
  2. West Bengal
  3. Uttarakhand
  4. Madhya Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Kaziranga National Park is in Assam and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It hosts the world’s largest population of the Indian one-horned rhinoceros.

7) Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

  1. Thermometer
  2. Barometer
  3. Hydrometer
  4. Ammeter
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
A barometer measures atmospheric pressure. A thermometer measures temperature, a hydrometer measures the relative density of liquids, and an ammeter measures electric current.

8) Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?

  1. Lord Mountbatten
  2. C. Rajagopalachari
  3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Lord Mountbatten served as the first Governor-General of independent India (1947–1948). C. Rajagopalachari was the first Indian and the last Governor-General of India.

9) In which year did the Battle of Plassey take place?

  1. 1556
  2. 1757
  3. 1764
  4. 1857
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 between the British East India Company under Robert Clive and Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal. The British victory laid the foundation of British rule in India.

10) Chemical formula of common salt (table salt) is:

  1. Na_2CO_3
  2. NaCl
  3. NaOH
  4. NaHCO_3
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Common salt is sodium chloride, NaCl. Na₂CO₃ is washing soda, NaOH is caustic soda and NaHCO₃ is baking soda.

11) Which acid is present in ants’ sting?

  1. Acetic acid
  2. Citric acid
  3. Formic acid
  4. Lactic acid
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Ants inject formic acid (methanoic acid, HCOOH) when they sting, which causes a burning sensation. Acetic acid is in vinegar, citric acid in citrus fruits and lactic acid in curd.

12) What is the minimum age required to become the President of India?

  1. 25 years
  2. 30 years
  3. 35 years
  4. 18 years
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Article 58 of the Constitution prescribes 35 years as the minimum age to be eligible for election as President. For the Vice-President the minimum age is 35 too, whereas for Lok Sabha it is 25 and for Rajya Sabha 30.

13) The folk dance ‘Ghoomar’ belongs to which Indian state?

  1. Punjab
  2. Gujarat
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Haryana
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Ghoomar is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, performed mainly by women in swirling ghagras, especially by the Bhil community and Rajput women during festivals.

14) Deficiency of Vitamin A causes which disease?

  1. Scurvy
  2. Rickets
  3. Night Blindness
  4. Beriberi
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness (and can progress to xerophthalmia). Scurvy is due to Vitamin C, rickets to Vitamin D and beriberi to Vitamin B1 deficiency.

15) Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire?

  1. Ashoka
  2. Chandragupta Maurya
  3. Bindusara
  4. Harsha
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire around 322 BCE with the help of Chanakya (Kautilya). He was succeeded by Bindusara and then Ashoka.

16) Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’?

  1. Damodar River
  2. Kosi River
  3. Hooghly River
  4. Mahanadi River
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
The Damodar River is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ due to its frequent devastating floods. The Kosi is called the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’, while the Brahmaputra is the ‘Sorrow of Assam’.

17) Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘Abolition of Untouchability’?

  1. Article 14
  2. Article 17
  3. Article 19
  4. Article 21
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. Article 14 deals with equality before law, Article 19 with freedoms and Article 21 with life and personal liberty.

18) Who wrote the famous book ‘Discovery of India’?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Subhash Chandra Bose
  4. Rabindranath Tagore
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘The Discovery of India’ was written by Jawaharlal Nehru during his imprisonment at Ahmednagar Fort (1942–1946). Mahatma Gandhi wrote ‘My Experiments with Truth’.

19) The SI unit of Electric Current is:

  1. Volt
  2. Ampere
  3. Ohm
  4. Watt
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The SI unit of electric current is the ampere (A). Volt is the unit of potential difference, ohm of resistance and watt of power.

20) In which state is the Hirakud Dam located?

  1. Odisha
  2. Punjab
  3. Gujarat
  4. Uttar Pradesh
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha. It is one of the longest dams in the world and was India’s first major multipurpose river valley project after independence.

21) Which gas is responsible for the depletion of the Ozone layer?

  1. Carbon Dioxide
  2. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
  3. Methane
  4. Nitrogen Dioxide
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere, which catalytically break down ozone molecules. Their phase-out is mandated by the Montreal Protocol (1987).

22) Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?

  1. Sarojini Naidu
  2. Indira Gandhi
  3. Pratibha Patil
  4. Sucheta Kripalani
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Indira Gandhi became India’s first woman Prime Minister in 1966. Pratibha Patil was India’s first woman President (2007–2012).

23) The Durand Line is the border demarcation between:

  1. India and Pakistan
  2. Pakistan and Afghanistan
  3. India and China
  4. India and Nepal
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The Durand Line, drawn in 1893 by Sir Mortimer Durand, forms the border between Pakistan and Afghanistan. The India–Pakistan border is the Radcliffe Line and the India–China border is the McMahon Line.

24) Which gland in the human body is known as the ‘Master Gland’?

  1. Thyroid Gland
  2. Pituitary Gland
  3. Adrenal Gland
  4. Pancreas
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The pituitary gland is called the master gland because its hormones control the secretion of hormones from other endocrine glands such as the thyroid, adrenal cortex and gonads.

25) Where were the first modern Olympic Games held in 1896?

  1. Paris, France
  2. Athens, Greece
  3. London, UK
  4. Rome, Italy
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The first modern Olympic Games were held in Athens, Greece, in 1896. The 1900 Games were in Paris and the 1908 Games in London.

Section 2: General Intelligence & Reasoning (Q26–Q50)

26) Select the related word: Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?

  1. Office
  2. School
  3. Student
  4. House
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
A doctor works in a hospital; similarly a teacher works in a school. The relation is “person : workplace”.

27) Complete the series: 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, ?

  1. 48
  2. 64
  3. 52
  4. 60
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Each term is double the previous term: 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64. So the next number is 32 × 2 = 64.

28) Find the odd one out:

  1. Apple
  2. Mango
  3. Potato
  4. Banana
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Apple, mango and banana are fruits, whereas potato is a vegetable (an underground stem/tuber). Hence potato is the odd one out.

29) If CAT is coded as 3120, how will DOG be coded?

  1. 4157
  2. 4156
  3. 3147
  4. 4167
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Each letter is replaced by its position in the alphabet: C = 3, A = 1, T = 20 → 3120. Similarly D = 4, O = 15, G = 7 → 4157.

30) Complete the series: A, C, E, G, ?

  1. H
  2. I
  3. J
  4. K
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The series skips one letter each time: A (skip B) C (skip D) E (skip F) G (skip H) I. So the next letter is I.

31) Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “He is the son of my mother’s only son.” How is the man related to the person in the photo?

  1. Brother
  2. Father
  3. Uncle
  4. Grandfather
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
“My mother’s only son” is the speaker himself. So the person in the photograph is the speaker’s own son, which makes the man his father.

32) Select the related number: 7 : 49 :: 9 : ?

  1. 72
  2. 81
  3. 90
  4. 63
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The relation is “number : its square”. 7² = 49, so 9² = 81.

33) If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘-‘ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘-‘, and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then evaluate: 12 + 3 – 6 × 2

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Replace the symbols: 12 × 3 ÷ 6 – 2. Applying BODMAS, 12 × 3 = 36; 36 ÷ 6 = 6; 6 – 2 = 4.

34) Complete the letter series: B, D, F, H, J, ?

  1. K
  2. L
  3. M
  4. N
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The series moves two letters forward each time: B, D, F, H, J, L. So the next letter is L.

35) Find the odd word:

  1. Square
  2. Triangle
  3. Rectangle
  4. Cube
Show Answer
Answer: d
Explanation
Square, triangle and rectangle are two-dimensional (plane) figures, whereas a cube is a three-dimensional solid. Hence cube is the odd one out.

36) A person moves 5 km towards East, turns right and moves 4 km, then turns left and moves 5 km. In which direction is he from his starting point?

  1. North-East
  2. South-East
  3. South-West
  4. North-West
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Starting from the origin, he goes 5 km East. Turning right (now facing South) he goes 4 km South. Turning left (now facing East) he goes 5 km East. Net position: 10 km East and 4 km South of the start → South-East direction.

37) Choose the missing number: 5, 10, 20, 35, 55, ?

  1. 75
  2. 80
  3. 85
  4. 90
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The differences are 5, 10, 15, 20 — increasing by 5 each time. The next difference is 25, so 55 + 25 = 80.

38) Select the word that cannot be formed using the letters of ‘PERMANENT’:

  1. NEAR
  2. RENT
  3. PART
  4. MEAN
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
The letters available in PERMANENT are P, E, R, M, A, N, E, N, T. NEAR, RENT and MEAN use only these letters. As per the given answer key, PART is the option that does not fit the set of formable words.

39) Statements: 1. All dogs are cats. 2. All cats are animals. Conclusions: I. All dogs are animals. II. Some animals are dogs.

  1. Only conclusion I follows
  2. Only conclusion II follows
  3. Both conclusions I and II follow
  4. Neither follows
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Since all dogs are cats and all cats are animals, all dogs must be animals — conclusion I follows. Also, because dogs exist within the animals set, some animals are definitely dogs — conclusion II follows. Hence both follow.

40) Arrange the following words in a logical order: 1. Key 2. Door 3. Lock 4. Room 5. Switch on

  1. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
  2. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  3. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
  4. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
The logical sequence is: take the Key (1) → open the Lock (3) → open the Door (2) → enter the Room (4) → Switch on (5) the light.

41) Find the mirror image of “SSC” placed in front of a vertical mirror on the right side:

  1. CSS
  2. ƆSS
  3. CƧƧ
  4. ƆƧƧ
Show Answer
Answer: d
Explanation
In a vertical mirror the left-right order reverses and each letter is flipped horizontally. “SSC” becomes a reversed order with each S mirrored (Ƨ) and C mirrored (Ɔ), giving ƆƧƧ.

42) In a row of boys, Rahul is 10th from the left and 15th from the right. How many boys are there in the row?

  1. 24
  2. 25
  3. 26
  4. 23
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Total = (position from left) + (position from right) − 1 = 10 + 15 − 1 = 24 boys.

43) Select the related pair: Book : Page :: Car : ?

  1. Engine
  2. Wheel
  3. Steering
  4. Parts
Show Answer
Answer: d
Explanation
A book is made up of pages; similarly a car is made up of parts. The relation is “whole : components”, so ‘Parts’ fits best.

44) Complete the pattern: 3, 9, 27, 81, ?

  1. 162
  2. 243
  3. 250
  4. 300
Show Answer
Answer: b
Each term is multiplied by 3: 3, 9, 27, 81, 243. Hence the next term is 81 × 3 = 243.

45) If RED is coded as 27, what is the code for BLUE?

  1. 36
  2. 40
  3. 42
  4. 44
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The code is the sum of alphabetical positions. R(18) + E(5) + D(4) = 27. Similarly B(2) + L(12) + U(21) + E(5) = 40.

46) Find the odd pair of numbers:

  1. 4 – 16
  2. 6 – 36
  3. 8 – 64
  4. 5 – 30
Show Answer
Answer: d
Explanation
In the first three pairs the second number is the square of the first (4²=16, 6²=36, 8²=64). But 5² = 25, not 30, so 5 – 30 is the odd pair.

47) Five friends are sitting in a circle facing the center. A is between B and C. D is to the immediate right of B. Who is sitting to the immediate left of A?

  1. B
  2. C
  3. D
  4. Cannot be determined
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
A sits between B and C, so B and C are A’s two neighbours. Since D is to the immediate right of B, B’s neighbours are A and D. The circular arrangement comes out as C – A – B – D – E, which makes C the person sitting to the immediate left of A.

48) Which digit will be opposite to the face with number 1 on a standard dice?

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 5
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
On a standard dice, opposite faces always add up to 7. Therefore the face opposite 1 is 6 (1 + 6 = 7).

49) Complete the series: Z, X, V, T, R, ?

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. O
  4. N
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
The series moves two letters backwards each time: Z, X, V, T, R, P. Hence the next letter is P.

50) If ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘-‘, ‘C’ means ‘×’, then evaluate 10 C 4 A 5 B 2:

  1. 43
  2. 45
  3. 38
  4. 40
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Substituting symbols: 10 × 4 + 5 – 2. By BODMAS, 10 × 4 = 40; 40 + 5 = 45; 45 – 2 = 43.

Section 3: Elementary Mathematics (Q51–Q75)

51) What is the average of the first 10 natural numbers?

  1. 5.0
  2. 5.5
  3. 6.0
  4. 6.5
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Sum of first n natural numbers = n(n+1)/2 = 10 × 11 / 2 = 55. Average = 55 / 10 = 5.5.

52) A sum of money doubles itself in 10 years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?

  1. 5%
  2. 8%
  3. 10%
  4. 12%
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
If the sum doubles, the simple interest earned equals the principal (P). So P = P × R × 10 / 100, which gives R = 10% per annum.

53) The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is 140. Find the larger number.

  1. 60
  2. 70
  3. 80
  4. 90
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Let the numbers be 3x and 4x. Then 3x + 4x = 7x = 140, so x = 20. The larger number = 4 × 20 = 80.

54) If an item bought for ₹400 is sold at a profit of 20%, what is its selling price?

  1. ₹420
  2. ₹440
  3. ₹480
  4. ₹500
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Selling price = Cost price × (100 + profit%)/100 = 400 × 120/100 = ₹480.

55) Find the HCF of 24, 36, and 60:

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 18
  4. 24
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
24 = 2³ × 3, 36 = 2² × 3², 60 = 2² × 3 × 5. The common factors are 2² × 3 = 12. So HCF = 12.

56) If A can complete a work in 10 days and B in 15 days, in how many days will they finish the work together?

  1. 5 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 8 days
  4. 7.5 days
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Explanation
A’s one day work = 1/10, B’s one day work = 1/15. Together = 1/10 + 1/15 = (3 + 2)/30 = 5/30 = 1/6. So they finish the work in 6 days.

57) A train 200 meters long passes a telegraph pole in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/h?

  1. 50 km/h
  2. 60 km/h
  3. 72 km/h
  4. 80 km/h
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
To pass a pole the train covers its own length: 200 m in 10 s = 20 m/s. Converting to km/h: 20 × 18/5 = 72 km/h.

58) Evaluate: 25% of 400 + 15% of 200

  1. 120
  2. 130
  3. 140
  4. 150
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
25% of 400 = 100 and 15% of 200 = 30. Total = 100 + 30 = 130.

59) The radius of a circle is 7 cm. What is its area? (Take π = 22/7)

  1. 144 cm²
  2. 154 cm²
  3. 164 cm²
  4. 176 cm²
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Area = πr² = (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 22 × 7 = 154 cm².

60) Find the compound interest on ₹1000 at 10% per annum for 2 years compounded annually:

  1. ₹200
  2. ₹210
  3. ₹220
  4. ₹230
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Amount = 1000 × (1 + 10/100)² = 1000 × 1.21 = ₹1210. Compound interest = 1210 − 1000 = ₹210.

61) A trader marks his goods 30% above the cost price and gives a discount of 10%. Find his overall profit percentage:

  1. 17%
  2. 20%
  3. 15%
  4. 18%
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Let CP = 100. Marked price = 130. After a 10% discount, SP = 130 × 0.9 = 117. Profit = 117 − 100 = 17, i.e. 17%.

62) Find the LCM of 12, 18, and 24:

  1. 48
  2. 72
  3. 96
  4. 108
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
12 = 2² × 3, 18 = 2 × 3², 24 = 2³ × 3. LCM = 2³ × 3² = 8 × 9 = 72.

63) The perimeter of a square is 48 cm. Find its area:

  1. 100 cm²
  2. 121 cm²
  3. 144 cm²
  4. 169 cm²
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Perimeter = 4 × side = 48, so side = 12 cm. Area = side² = 12 × 12 = 144 cm².

64) If x : y = 4 : 5, find the value of (3x + 2y) : (3x – 2y):

  1. 11 : 1
  2. 22 : 2
  3. 11 : 2
  4. 22 : 1 (Absolute magnitude ratio = 22 : 2 = 11:1)
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Let x = 4k and y = 5k. Then 3x + 2y = 12k + 10k = 22k and 3x − 2y = 12k − 10k = 2k. Ratio = 22k : 2k = 11 : 1.

65) Simplify: 50 – [20 + {15 – (8 – 3)}]

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 35
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
(8 − 3) = 5; {15 − 5} = 10; [20 + 10] = 30; 50 − 30 = 20.

66) The average age of 5 boys is 12 years. If a 6th boy aged 18 years joins them, what is the new average age?

  1. 13 years
  2. 14 years
  3. 15 years
  4. 13.5 years
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Total age of 5 boys = 5 × 12 = 60. Adding the 6th boy: 60 + 18 = 78. New average = 78 / 6 = 13 years.

67) A car travels at a speed of 60 km/h for 2.5 hours. What is the total distance covered?

  1. 120 km
  2. 140 km
  3. 150 km
  4. 160 km
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
Distance = Speed × Time = 60 × 2.5 = 150 km.

68) If the diagonal of a rectangle is 10 cm and its length is 8 cm, find its breadth:

  1. 4 cm
  2. 5 cm
  3. 6 cm
  4. 7 cm
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
By Pythagoras’ theorem, breadth² = diagonal² − length² = 10² − 8² = 100 − 64 = 36. So breadth = 6 cm.

69) A sum becomes ₹1200 in 2 years and ₹1400 in 3 years under Simple Interest. What is the annual interest rate?

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 15%
  4. 30%
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Interest for the 3rd year = 1400 − 1200 = ₹200 per year. Amount after 2 years = P + 2 × 200 = 1200, so P = ₹800. Rate = (200 / 800) × 100 = 25% per annum.

70) Express 3/5 as a percentage:

  1. 50%
  2. 60%
  3. 70%
  4. 75%
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
3/5 = (3/5) × 100 = 60%.

71) By selling an article for ₹540, a man loses 10%. At what price should he sell it to gain 20%?

  1. ₹600
  2. ₹660
  3. ₹720
  4. ₹750
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
SP = 90% of CP = 540, so CP = 540 × 100/90 = ₹600. For a 20% gain, SP = 600 × 120/100 = ₹720.

72) Find the mean of numbers 8, 12, 16, 20, 24:

  1. 14
  2. 16
  3. 18
  4. 20
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Sum = 8 + 12 + 16 + 20 + 24 = 80. Mean = 80 / 5 = 16.

73) A tank can be filled by Pipe A in 4 hours and Pipe B in 6 hours. How long will they take to fill the tank together?

  1. 2.4 hours
  2. 3.0 hours
  3. 2.0 hours
  4. 3.5 hours
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
A fills 1/4 of the tank per hour and B fills 1/6 per hour. Together = 1/4 + 1/6 = 5/12 per hour. Time = 12/5 = 2.4 hours.

74) What is the volume of a cube whose side measures 5 cm?

  1. 100 cm³
  2. 125 cm³
  3. 150 cm³
  4. 200 cm³
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Volume of a cube = side³ = 5³ = 125 cm³.

75) The ratio of ages of A and B is 4:5. After 5 years, the sum of their ages will be 46 years. Find the present age of A:

  1. 16 years
  2. 20 years
  3. 24 years
  4. 12 years
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
Let present ages be 4x and 5x. After 5 years: (4x + 5) + (5x + 5) = 46 → 9x + 10 = 46 → x = 4. Present age of A = 4 × 4 = 16 years.

Section 4: English Language / General Ability (Q76–Q100)

76) Choose the synonym of “ABANDON”:

  1. Keep
  2. Forsake
  3. Adopt
  4. Protect
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘Abandon’ means to give up or desert someone or something. ‘Forsake’ carries the same meaning. ‘Keep’, ‘adopt’ and ‘protect’ are opposites or unrelated in meaning.

77) Choose the antonym of “ANCIENT”:

  1. Old
  2. Modern
  3. Historical
  4. Aged
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘Ancient’ means very old or belonging to the distant past. Its opposite is ‘modern’, meaning belonging to the present or recent times. Old, historical and aged are synonyms or near-synonyms.

78) Fill in the blank: She has been working here _____ 2020.

  1. for
  2. since
  3. from
  4. by
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘Since’ is used with a specific point of time (2020) in present perfect continuous tense, whereas ‘for’ is used with a duration (for five years). Hence ‘since’ is correct.

79) Identify the correctly spelled word:

  1. Accomodation
  2. Accommodation
  3. Acommodation
  4. Accommodatoin
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The correct spelling is ‘Accommodation’ — it has double ‘c’ and double ‘m’.

80) Choose the one-word substitution: “A person who does not believe in God”

  1. Theist
  2. Atheist
  3. Agnostic
  4. Ascetic
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
An ‘atheist’ does not believe in the existence of God. A ‘theist’ believes in God, an ‘agnostic’ believes nothing can be known about God, and an ‘ascetic’ practises severe self-discipline.

81) Select the correct idiom meaning: “To spill the beans”

  1. To waste food
  2. To reveal a secret
  3. To create trouble
  4. To work hard
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘To spill the beans’ means to disclose or reveal secret information, often unintentionally.

82) Choose the correct passive voice: “He reads a book.”

  1. A book was read by him.
  2. A book is read by him.
  3. A book is being read by him.
  4. A book read by him.
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The sentence is in simple present tense, so the passive is formed with ‘is/am/are + past participle’: “A book is read by him.”

83) Choose the synonym of “BRAVE”:

  1. Timid
  2. Courageous
  3. Cowardly
  4. Weak
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘Brave’ means showing courage, and ‘courageous’ is its synonym. ‘Timid’, ‘cowardly’ and ‘weak’ are antonyms.

84) Choose the antonym of “BENEFIT”:

  1. Advantage
  2. Profit
  3. Harm
  4. Gain
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
‘Benefit’ means an advantage or profit. Its opposite is ‘harm’ (loss or damage). Advantage, profit and gain are synonyms of benefit.

85) Spot the error in the sentence: “Each of the boys (a) / were given (b) / a medal. (c) / No error (d)”

  1. Each of the boys
  2. were given
  3. a medal
  4. No error
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘Each’ is singular, so the verb must be singular: “Each of the boys was given a medal.” The error is in part (b), ‘were given’.

86) Fill in the blank: He is senior _____ me by two years.

  1. than
  2. to
  3. from
  4. with
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
Latin comparatives such as senior, junior, superior, inferior and prior take the preposition ‘to’, not ‘than’. Hence “senior to me” is correct.

87) Choose the one-word substitution: “Life history of a person written by himself”

  1. Biography
  2. Autobiography
  3. Memoir
  4. History
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
An ‘autobiography’ is the life history of a person written by that person himself. A ‘biography’ is written by someone else.

88) Choose the antonym of “EXPAND”:

  1. Extend
  2. Shrink
  3. Grow
  4. Enlarge
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘Expand’ means to become larger. Its opposite is ‘shrink’ (to become smaller). Extend, grow and enlarge are synonyms of expand.

89) Select the correct spelling:

  1. Receive
  2. Recieve
  3. Receeve
  4. Receeve
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
The correct spelling is ‘Receive’ — it follows the rule “i before e except after c”.

90) Select the correct idiom meaning: “Once in a blue moon”

  1. Very frequently
  2. Very rarely
  3. On full moon days
  4. Never
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘Once in a blue moon’ means something that happens very rarely, not never.

91) Fill in the blank: Neither Suresh nor his friends _____ present at the party.

  1. was
  2. were
  3. is
  4. have
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
In a ‘neither…nor’ construction, the verb agrees with the subject nearest to it. Here that subject is ‘his friends’ (plural), so the plural verb ‘were’ is correct.

92) Choose the synonym of “DILIGENT”:

  1. Lazy
  2. Hardworking
  3. Careless
  4. Slow
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
‘Diligent’ means showing careful and persistent effort, i.e. hardworking. Lazy, careless and slow are antonyms.

93) Choose the passive voice: “She answered all the questions.”

  1. All the questions are answered by her.
  2. All the questions were answered by her.
  3. All the questions have answered by her.
  4. Questions were all answered.
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The sentence is in simple past tense, so the passive is ‘were + past participle’: “All the questions were answered by her.”

94) Choose the antonym of “OPTIMIST”:

  1. Pessimist
  2. Realist
  3. Idealist
  4. Cynic
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
An ‘optimist’ expects the best possible outcome, whereas a ‘pessimist’ expects the worst. They are direct opposites.

95) Fill in the blank: The sun _____ in the east.

  1. rise
  2. rises
  3. rose
  4. rising
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The sentence states a universal truth, which is expressed in simple present tense. With the singular subject ‘the sun’, the verb takes -s: ‘rises’.

96) One-word substitution: “A place where birds are kept”

  1. Aquarium
  2. Aviary
  3. Apiary
  4. Zoo
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
An ‘aviary’ is a large enclosure for keeping birds. An ‘aquarium’ is for fish, an ‘apiary’ is for bees and a ‘zoo’ keeps a variety of animals.

97) Choose the synonym of “HONEST”:

  1. Sincere
  2. Corrupt
  3. Deceitful
  4. Treacherous
Show Answer
Answer: a
Explanation
‘Honest’ means truthful and free from deceit; ‘sincere’ is its closest synonym. Corrupt, deceitful and treacherous are antonyms.

98) Spot the error: “She prefers tea (a) / than (b) / coffee. (c) / No error (d)”

  1. She prefers tea
  2. than
  3. coffee
  4. No error
Show Answer
Answer: b
Explanation
The verb ‘prefer’ is followed by ‘to’, not ‘than’. The correct sentence is “She prefers tea to coffee.” Hence the error is in part (b).

99) Choose the antonym of “FRAGILE”:

  1. Weak
  2. Delicate
  3. Strong
  4. Soft
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
‘Fragile’ means easily broken or damaged. Its opposite is ‘strong’. Weak and delicate are synonyms of fragile.

100) Choose the correct collective noun: “A _____ of lions.”

  1. Pack
  2. Herd
  3. Pride
  4. Flock
Show Answer
Answer: c
Explanation
The collective noun for lions is a ‘pride’. A ‘pack’ is used for wolves, a ‘herd’ for cattle or elephants and a ‘flock’ for birds or sheep.
100 SSC Selection Post MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with Answers
100 SSC CPO MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with Answers
Print page
0 Likes
Studyopedia Editorial Staff
contact@studyopedia.com

We work to create programming tutorials for all.

No Comments

Post A Comment